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QUESTION POOL Amateur Radio Examination Element 3A (Technician Class) Final Version as released by Question Pool Committee National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators December 1, 1992 SUBELEMENT T1 COMMISSION'S RULES [5 exam questions - 5 groups] T1A Station control, frequency privileges authorized to the Technician-class control operator, term of licenses, grace periods and modifications of licenses. T1A01 (D) [97.3a12] What is the control point of an amateur station? A. The on/off switch of the transmitter B. The input/output port of a packet controller C. The variable frequency oscillator of a transmitter D. The location at which the control operator function is performed T1A02 (B) [97.3a12] What is the term for the location at which the control operator function is performed? A. The operating desk B. The control point C. The station location D. The manual control location T1A03 (A) [97.19a/b] What must you do to renew or change your operator/primary station license? A. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the FCC in Gettysburg, PA B. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the nearest FCC field office C. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the FCC in Washington, DC D. An amateur license never needs changing or renewing T1A04 (A) [97.19c] What is the "grace period" during which the FCC will renew an expired 10-year license? A. 2 years B. 5 years C. 10 years D. There is no grace period T1A05 (C) [97.301/305e] Which of the following frequencies may a Technician operator who has passed a Morse code test use? A. 7.1 - 7.2 MHz B. 14.1 - 14.2 MHz C. 21.1 - 21.2 MHz D. 28.1 - 29.2 MHz T1A06 (C) [97.301a] Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 52.525 MHz? A. Extra, Advanced only B. Extra, Advanced, General only C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice T1A07 (B) [97.301a] Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 146.52 MHz? A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. Extra, Advanced only T1A08 (A) [97.301a] Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 223.50 MHz? A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. Extra, Advanced only T1A09 (B) [97.301a] Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 446.0 MHz? A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. Extra, Advanced only T1A10 (D) [97.301e] In addition to passing the Technician written examination (Elements 2 and 3A), what must you do before you are allowed to use amateur frequencies below 30 MHz? A. Nothing special is needed; all Technicians may use the HF bands at any time B. You must notify the FCC that you intend to operate on the HF bands C. You must attend a class to learn about HF communications D. You must pass a Morse code test (either Element 1A, 1B or 1C) T1A11 (C) [97.301e] If you are a Technician licensee, what must you have to prove that you are authorized to use the Novice amateur frequencies below 30 MHz? A. A certificate from the FCC showing that you have notified them that you will be using the HF bands B. A certificate from an instructor showing that you have attended a class in HF communications C. Written proof of having passed a Morse code test D. No special proof is required before using the HF bands T1B Emission privileges for Technician-class control operator, frequency selection and sharing, transmitter power. T1B01 (C) [97.3b6] At what point in your station is transceiver power measured? A. At the power supply terminals inside the transmitter or amplifier B. At the final amplifier input terminals inside the transmitter or amplifier C. At the antenna terminals of the transmitter or amplifier D. On the antenna itself, after the feed line T1B02 (D) [97.3b6] What is the term for the average power supplied to an antenna transmission line during one RF cycle at the crest of the modulation envelope? A. Peak transmitter power B. Peak output power C. Average radio-frequency power D. Peak envelope power T1B03 (B) [97.203c] What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station in beacon operation? A. 10 watts PEP output B. 100 watts PEP output C. 500 watts PEP output D. 1500 watts PEP output T1B04 (C) [97.303] If the FCC rules say that the amateur service is a secondary user of a frequency band, and another service is a primary user, what does this mean? A. Nothing special; all users of a frequency band have equal rights to operate B. Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency band during emergencies C. Amateurs are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users D. Amateurs must increase transmitter power to overcome any interference caused by primary users T1B05 (D) [97.303] If you are using a frequency within a band assigned to the amateur service on a secondary basis, and a station assigned to the primary service on that band causes interference, what action should you take? A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the interference B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference D. Change frequencies; you may be causing harmful interference to the other station, in violation of FCC rules T1B06 (C) [97.101b] What rule applies if two amateur stations want to use the same frequency? A. The station operator with a lesser class of license must yield the frequency to a higher-class licensee B. The station operator with a lower power output must yield the frequency to the station with a higher power output C. Both station operators have an equal right to operate on the frequency D. Station operators in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the frequency to stations in ITU Region 2 T1B07 (A) [97.305a] What emission type may always be used for station identification, regardless of the transmitting frequency? A. CW B. RTTY C. MCW D. Phone T1B08 (B) [97.305c] On what frequencies within the 6-meter band may phone emissions be transmitted? A. 50.0 - 54.0 MHz only B. 50.1 - 54.0 MHz only C. 51.0 - 54.0 MHz only D. 52.0 - 54.0 MHz only T1B09 (A) [97.305c] On what frequencies within the 2-meter band may image emissions be transmitted? A. 144.1 - 148.0 MHz only B. 146.0 - 148.0 MHz only C. 144.0 - 148.0 MHz only D. 146.0 - 147.0 MHz only T1B10 (D) [97.313b] What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on 146.52 MHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 500 watts ERP C. 1000 watts DC input D. 1500 watts PEP output T1B11 (A) [97.209b2] Which band may NOT be used by Earth stations for satellite communications? A. 6 meters B. 2 meters C. 70 centimeters D. 23 centimeters T1C Digital communications, station identification, ID with CSCE. T1C01 (A) [97.119e1] If you are a Novice licensee with a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for Technician privileges, how do you identify your station when transmitting on 146.34 MHz? A. You must give your call sign, followed by any suitable word that denotes the slant mark and the identifier "KT" B. You may not operate on 146.34 until your new license arrives C. No special form of identification is needed D. You must give your call sign and the location of the VE examination where you obtained the CSCE T1C02 (C) [97.307f3/4] What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for RTTY or data transmissions below 50 MHz? A. 0.1 kHz B. 0.5 kHz C. 1 kHz D. 5 kHz T1C03 (D) [97.307] What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for RTTY or data transmissions above 50 MHz? A. 0.1 kHz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater B. 0.5 kHz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater C. 5 kHz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater D. The FCC rules do not specify a maximum frequency shift above 50 MHz T1C04 (B) [97.307f4] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet transmissions on the 10-meter band? A. 300 bauds B. 1200 bauds C. 19.6 kilobauds D. 56 kilobauds T1C05 (C) [97.307f5] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet transmissions on the 2-meter band? A. 300 bauds B. 1200 bauds C. 19.6 kilobauds D. 56 kilobauds T1C06 (C) [97.307f4] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data transmissions between 28 and 50 MHz? A. 56 kilobauds B. 19.6 kilobauds C. 1200 bauds D. 300 bauds T1C07 (B) [97.307f5] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data transmissions between 50 and 222 MHz? A. 56 kilobauds B. 19.6 kilobauds C. 1200 bauds D. 300 bauds T1C08 (A) [97.307f5] What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of RTTY, data or multiplexed emissions using an unspecified digital code within the frequency range of 50 to 222 MHz? A. 20 kHz B. 50 kHz C. The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single- sideband phone emission D. The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW emission T1C09 (D) [97.307f6] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data transmissions above 222 MHz? A. 300 bauds B. 1200 bauds C. 19.6 kilobauds D. 56 kilobauds T1C10 (B) [97.307f6] What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of RTTY, data or multiplexed emissions using an unspecified digital code within the frequency range of 222 to 450 MHz? A. 50 kHz B. 100 kHz C. 150 kHz D. 200 kHz T1C11 (C) [97.307f6] What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of RTTY, data or multiplexed emissions using an unspecified digital code within the 70-cm amateur band? A. 300 kHz B. 200 kHz C. 100 kHz D. 50 kHz T1D Correct language, Phonetics, Beacons and Radio Control of model craft and vehicles. T1D01 (A) [97.3a9] What is an amateur station called which transmits communications for the purpose of observation of propagation and reception? A. A beacon B. A repeater C. An auxiliary station D. A radio control station T1D02 (B) [97.119b1] What is the fastest code speed a repeater may use for automatic identification? A. 13 words per minute B. 20 words per minute C. 25 words per minute D. There is no limitation T1D03 (C) [97.119b2] If you are using a language besides English to make a contact, what language must you use when identifying your station? A. The language being used for the contact B. The language being used for the contact, providing the US has a third-party communications agreement with that country C. English D. Any language of a country which is a member of the International Telecommunication Union T1D04 (C) [97.119b2] What do the FCC rules suggest you use as an aid for correct station identification when using phone? A. A speech compressor B. Q signals C. A phonetic alphabet D. Unique words of your choice T1D05 (B) [97.203a] What minimum class of amateur license must you hold to operate a beacon station? A. Novice B. Technician C. General D. Amateur Extra T1D06 (A) [97.205c] If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another repeater and a frequency coordinator has recommended the operation of one station only, who is responsible for resolving the interference? A. The licensee of the unrecommended repeater B. Both repeater licensees C. The licensee of the recommended repeater D. The frequency coordinator T1D07 (D) [97.205c] If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another amateur repeater and a frequency coordinator has recommended the operation of both stations, who is responsible for resolving the interference? A. The licensee of the repeater which has been recommended for the longest period of time B. The licensee of the repeater which has been recommended the most recently C. The frequency coordinator D. Both repeater licensees T1D08 (A) [97.205c] If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another repeater and a frequency coordinator has NOT recommended either station, who is primarily responsible for resolving the interference? A. Both repeater licensees B. The licensee of the repeater which has been in operation for the longest period of time C. The licensee of the repeater which has been in operation for the shortest period of time D. The frequency coordinator T1D09 (C) [97.215a] What minimum information must be on a label affixed to a transmitter used for telecommand (control) of model craft? A. Station call sign B. Station call sign and the station licensee's name C. Station call sign and the station licensee's name and address D. Station call sign and the station licensee's class of license T1D10 (D) [97.215a] What are the station identification requirements for an amateur transmitter used for telecommand (control) of model craft? A. Once every ten minutes B. Once every ten minutes, and at the beginning and end of each transmission C. At the beginning and end of each transmission D. Station identification is not required if the transmitter is labeled with the station licensee's name, address and call sign T1D11 (B) [97.215c] What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station is allowed when used for telecommand (control) of model craft? A. One milliwatt B. One watt C. Two watts D. Three watts T1E Emergency communications; broadcasting; permissible one-way, satellite and third-party communication; indecent and profane language. T1E01 (A) [97.3a10] What is meant by the term broadcasting? A. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public, either direct or relayed B. Retransmission by automatic means of programs or signals from non-amateur stations C. One-way radio communications, regardless of purpose or content D. One-way or two-way radio communications between two or more stations T1E02 (B) [97.3a10] Which of the following one-way communications may not be transmitted in the amateur service? A. Telecommands to model craft B. Broadcasts intended for the general public C. Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station D. Morse code practice T1E03 (D) [97.113b] What kind of payment is allowed for third-party messages sent by an amateur station? A. Any amount agreed upon in advance B. Donation of equipment repairs C. Donation of amateur equipment D. No payment of any kind is allowed T1E04 (B) [97.113d] When may you send obscene words from your amateur station? A. Only when they do not cause interference to other communications B. Never; obscene words are prohibited in amateur transmissions C. Only when they are not retransmitted through a repeater D. Any time, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that they should not be used on the air T1E05 (D) [97.113d] When may you send indecent words from your amateur station? A. Only when they do not cause interference to other communications B. Only when they are not retransmitted through a repeater C. Any time, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that they should not be used on the air D. Never; indecent words are prohibited in amateur transmissions T1E06 (C) [97.113d] When may you send profane words from your amateur station? A. Only when they do not cause interference to other communications B. Only when they are not retransmitted through a repeater C. Never; profane words are prohibited in amateur transmissions D. Any time, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that they should not be used on the air T1E07 (C) [97.113e] If you wanted to use your amateur station to retransmit communications between a space shuttle and its associated Earth stations, what agency must first give its approval? A. The FCC in Washington, DC B. The office of your local FCC Engineer In Charge (EIC) C. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration D. The Department of Defense T1E08 (D) [97.115a2] When are third-party messages allowed to be sent to a foreign country? A. When sent by agreement of both control operators B. When the third party speaks to a relative C. They are not allowed under any circumstances D. When the US has a third-party agreement with the foreign country or the third party is qualified to be a control operator T1E09 (A) [97.115b1] If you let an unlicensed third party use your amateur station, what must you do at your station's control point? A. You must continuously monitor and supervise the third-party's participation B. You must monitor and supervise the communication only if contacts are made in countries which have no third-party communications agreement with the US C. You must monitor and supervise the communication only if contacts are made on frequencies below 30 MHz D. You must key the transmitter and make the station identification T1E10 (A) [97.401a] If a disaster disrupts normal communication systems in an area where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC, what kinds of transmissions may stations make? A. Those which are necessary to meet essential communication needs and facilitate relief actions B. Those which allow a commercial business to continue to operate in the affected area C. Those for which material compensation has been paid to the amateur operator for delivery into the affected area D. Those which are to be used for program production or newsgathering for broadcasting purposes T1E11 (C) [97.401c] What information is included in an FCC declaration of a temporary state of communication emergency? A. A list of organizations authorized to use radio communications in the affected area B. A list of amateur frequency bands to be used in the affected area C. Any special conditions and special rules to be observed during the emergency D. An operating schedule for authorized amateur emergency stations SUBELEMENT T2 OPERATING PROCEDURES [3 exam questions - 3 groups] T2A Repeater operation, courteous operation. T2A01 (B) How do you call another station on a repeater if you know the station's call sign? A. Say "break, break 79," then say the station's call sign B. Say the station's call sign, then identify your own station C. Say "CQ" three times, then say the station's call sign D. Wait for the station to call "CQ," then answer it T2A02 (C) Why should you pause briefly between transmissions when using a repeater? A. To check the SWR of the repeater B. To reach for pencil and paper for third-party communications C. To listen for anyone wanting to break in D. To dial up the repeater's autopatch T2A03 (A) Why should you keep transmissions short when using a repeater? A. A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency from using the repeater B. To see if the receiving station operator is still awake C. To give any listening non-hams a chance to respond D. To keep long-distance charges down T2A04 (D) What is the proper way to break into a conversation on a repeater? A. Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling the desired party B. Shout, "break, break!" to show that you're eager to join the conversation C. Turn on an amplifier and override whoever is talking D. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions T2A05 (B) What is the purpose of repeater operation? A. To cut your power bill by using someone else's higher power system B. To help mobile and low-power stations extend their usable range C. To transmit signals for observing propagation and reception D. To make calls to stores more than 50 miles away T2A06 (B) What causes a repeater to "time out"? A. The repeater's battery supply runs out B. Someone's transmission goes on longer than the repeater allows C. The repeater gets too hot and stops transmitting until its circuitry cools off D. Something is wrong with the repeater T2A07 (D) During commuting rush hours, which type of repeater operation should be discouraged? A. Mobile stations B. Low-power stations C. Highway traffic information nets D. Third-party communications nets T2A08 (B) What is a courtesy tone (used in repeater operations)? A. A sound used to identify the repeater B. A sound used to indicate when a transmission is complete C. A sound used to indicate that a message is waiting for someone D. A sound used to activate a receiver in case of severe weather T2A09 (A) What is the meaning of: "Your signal is full quieting..."? A. Your signal is strong enough to overcome all receiver noise B. Your signal has no spurious sounds C. Your signal is not strong enough to be received D. Your signal is being received, but no audio is being heard T2A10 (C) How should you give a signal report over a repeater? A. Say what your receiver's S-meter reads B. Always say: "Your signal report is five five..." C. Say the amount of signal quieting into the repeater D. Try to imitate the sound quality you are receiving T2A11 (A) What is a repeater called which is available for anyone to use? A. An open repeater B. A closed repeater C. An autopatch repeater D. A private repeater T2A12 (A) What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters in the 2-meter band? A. 600 kHz B. 1.0 MHz C. 1.6 MHz D. 5.0 MHz T2A13 (C) What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters in the 1.25-meter band? A. 600 kHz B. 1.0 MHz C. 1.6 MHz D. 5.0 MHz T2A14 (D) What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters in the 70-centimeter band? A. 600 kHz B. 1.0 MHz C. 1.6 MHz D. 5.0 MHz T2A15 (A) Why should local amateur communications use VHF and UHF frequencies instead of HF frequencies? A. To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long-distance communication B. Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF C. Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally D. Because signals are louder on VHF and UHF frequencies T2A16 (A) How might you join a closed repeater system? A. Contact the control operator and ask to join B. Use the repeater until told not to C. Use simplex on the repeater input until told not to D. Write the FCC and report the closed condition T2A17 (B) How can on-the-air interference be minimized during a lengthy transmitter testing or loading-up procedure? A. Choose an unoccupied frequency B. Use a dummy load C. Use a non-resonant antenna D. Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading-up procedure T2A18 (C) What is the proper way to ask someone their location when using a repeater? A. What is your QTH B. What is your 20 C. Where are you D. Locations are not normally told by radio T2B Simplex operations, Q signals, RST signal reporting, repeater frequency coordination. T2B01 (C) Why should simplex be used where possible, instead of using a repeater? A. Signal range will be increased B. Long distance toll charges will be avoided C. The repeater will not be tied up unnecessarily D. Your antenna's effectiveness will be better tested T2B02 (A) If you are talking to a station using a repeater, how would you find out if you could communicate using simplex instead? A. See if you can clearly receive the station on the repeater's input frequency B. See if you can clearly receive the station on a lower frequency band C. See if you can clearly receive a more distant repeater D. See if a third station can clearly receive both of you T2B03 (C) If you are operating simplex on a repeater frequency, why would it be good amateur practice to change to another frequency? A. The repeater's output power may ruin your station's receiver B. There are more repeater operators than simplex operators C. Changing the repeater's frequency is not practical D. Changing the repeater's frequency requires the authorization of the FCC T2B04 (D) What is a repeater frequency coordinator? A. Someone who organizes the assembly of a repeater station B. Someone who provides advice on what kind of repeater to buy C. The person whose call sign is used for a repeater's identification D. A person or group that recommends frequencies for repeater usage T2B05 (C) What is the proper Q signal to use to see if a frequency is in use before transmitting on CW? A. QRV? B. QRU? C. QRL? D. QRZ? T2B06 (A) What is one meaning of the Q signal "QSY"? A. Change frequency B. Send more slowly C. Send faster D. Use more power T2B07 (B) What is one meaning of the Q signal "QSO"? A. A contact is confirmed B. A conversation is in progress C. A contact is ending D. A conversation is desired T2B08 (B) What is the proper Q signal to use to ask if someone is calling you on CW? A. QSL? B. QRZ? C. QRL? D. QRT? T2B09 (A) What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is five seven..."? A. Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong B. Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty D. Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone T2B10 (C) What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is three three..."? A. The contact is serial number thirty-three B. The station is located at latitude 33 degrees C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and weak in strength D. Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength T2B11 (D) What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is five nine plus 20 dB..."? A. Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100 B. Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher C. The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity D. A relative signal-strength meter reading is 20 decibels greater than strength 9 T2C Distress calling and emergency drills and communications - operations and equipment, Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES) T2C01 (A) What is the proper distress call to use when operating phone? A. Say "MAYDAY" several times B. Say "HELP" several times C. Say "EMERGENCY" several times D. Say "SOS" several times T2C02 (D) What is the proper distress call to use when operating CW? A. MAYDAY B. QRRR C. QRZ D. SOS T2C03 (A) What is the proper way to interrupt a repeater conversation to signal a distress call? A. Say "BREAK" twice, then your call sign B. Say "HELP" as many times as it takes to get someone to answer C. Say "SOS," then your call sign D. Say "EMERGENCY" three times T2C04 (C) With what organization must you register before you can participate in RACES drills? A. A local Amateur Radio club B. A local racing organization C. The responsible civil defense organization D. The Federal Communications Commission T2C05 (A) What is the maximum number of hours allowed per week for RACES drills? A. One B. Six, but not more than one hour per day C. Eight D. As many hours as you want T2C06 (D) How must you identify messages sent during a RACES drill? A. As emergency messages B. As amateur traffic C. As official government messages D. As drill or test messages T2C07 (B) What is one reason for using tactical call signs such as "command post" or "weather center" during an emergency? A. They keep the general public informed about what is going on B. They are more efficient and help coordinate public-service communications C. They are required by the FCC D. They increase goodwill between amateurs T2C08 (D) What type of messages concerning a person's well-being are sent into or out of a disaster area? A. Routine traffic B. Tactical traffic C. Formal message traffic D. Health and Welfare traffic T2C09 (B) What are messages called which are sent into or out of a disaster area concerning the immediate safety of human life? A. Tactical traffic B. Emergency traffic C. Formal message traffic D. Health and Welfare traffic T2C10 (B) Why is it a good idea to have a way to operate your amateur station without using commercial AC power lines? A. So you may use your station while mobile B. So you may provide communications in an emergency C. So you may operate in contests where AC power is not allowed D. So you will comply with the FCC rules T2C11 (C) What is the most important accessory to have for a hand-held radio in an emergency? A. An extra antenna B. A portable amplifier C. Several sets of charged batteries D. A microphone headset for hands-free operation T2C12 (C) Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of a portable HF amateur station that could be set up in case of an emergency? A. A three-element quad B. A three-element Yagi C. A dipole D. A parabolic dish SUBELEMENT T3 RADIO-WAVE PROPAGATION - [3 exam questions - 3 groups] T3A Ionosphere, ionospheric regions, solar radiation. T3A01 (A) What is the ionosphere? A. An area of the outer atmosphere where enough ions and free electrons exist to propagate radio waves B. An area between two air masses of different temperature and humidity, along which radio waves can travel C. An ionized path in the atmosphere where lightning has struck D. An area of the atmosphere where weather takes place T3A02 (D) What is the name of the area that makes long-distance radio communications possible by bending radio waves? A. Troposphere B. Stratosphere C. Magnetosphere D. Ionosphere T3A03 (A) What causes the ionosphere to form? A. Solar radiation ionizing the outer atmosphere B. Temperature changes ionizing the outer atmosphere C. Lightning ionizing the outer atmosphere D. Release of fluorocarbons into the atmosphere T3A04 (C) What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in the outer atmosphere? A. Thermal B. Ionized particle C. Ultraviolet D. Microwave T3A05 (A) Which ionospheric region limits daytime radio communications on the 80-meter band to short distances? A. D region B. E region C. F1 region D. F2 region T3A06 (B) Which ionospheric region is closest to the earth? A. The A region B. The D region C. The E region D. The F region T3A07 (B) Which ionospheric region most affects sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band? A. The D region B. The E region C. The F1 region D. The F2 region T3A08 (A) Which region of the ionosphere is the least useful for long- distance radio wave propagation? A. The D region B. The E region C. The F1 region D. The F2 region T3A09 (D) Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long- distance sky-wave radio communications? A. D region B. E region C. F1 region D. F2 region T3A10 (B) What two sub-regions of ionosphere exist only in the daytime? A. Troposphere and stratosphere B. F1 and F2 C. Electrostatic and electromagnetic D. D and E T3A11 (C) Which two daytime ionospheric regions combine into one region at night? A. E and F1 B. D and E C. F1 and F2 D. E1 and E2 T3B Ionospheric absorption, causes and variation, maximum usable frequency. T3B01 (D) Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for absorbing radio signals during the daytime? A. The F2 region B. The F1 region C. The E region D. The D region T3B02 (B) When does ionospheric absorption of radio signals occur? A. When tropospheric ducting occurs B. When long-wavelength signals enter the D region C. When signals travel to the F region D. When a temperature inversion occurs T3B03 (A) What effect does the D region of the ionosphere have on lower- frequency HF signals in the daytime? A. It absorbs the signals B. It bends the radio waves out into space C. It refracts the radio waves back to earth D. It has little or no effect on 80-meter radio waves T3B04 (B) What causes the ionosphere to absorb radio waves? A. The weather below the ionosphere B. The ionization of the D region C. The presence of ionized clouds in the E region D. The splitting of the F region T3B05 (D) What is the condition of the ionosphere just before local sunrise? A. Atmospheric attenuation is at a maximum B. The D region is above the E region C. The E region is above the F region D. Ionization is at a minimum T3B06 (C) When is the ionosphere most ionized? A. Dusk B. Midnight C. Midday D. Dawn T3B07 (A) When is the ionosphere least ionized? A. Shortly before dawn B. Just after noon C. Just after dusk D. Shortly before midnight T3B08 (B) When is the E region most ionized? A. Dawn B. Midday C. Dusk D. Midnight T3B09 (A) What happens to signals higher in frequency than the critical frequency? A. They pass through the ionosphere B. They are absorbed by the ionosphere C. Their frequency is changed by the ionosphere to be below the maximum usable frequency D. They are reflected back to their source T3B10 (C) What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary? A. The temperature of the ionosphere B. The speed of the winds in the upper atmosphere C. The amount of radiation received from the sun, mainly ultraviolet D. The type of weather just below the ionosphere T3B11 (A) What does maximum usable frequency mean? A. The highest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination B. The lowest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination C. The highest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the ionosphere D. The lowest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the ionosphere T3C Propagation, including ionospheric, tropospheric, line-of- sight scatter propagation, and Maximum Usable Frequency. T3C01 (C) What kind of propagation would best be used by two stations within each other's skip zone on a certain frequency? A. Ground-wave B. Sky-wave C. Scatter-mode D. Ducting T3C02 (C) If you are receiving a weak and distorted signal from a distant station on a frequency close to the maximum usable frequency, what type of propagation is probably occurring? A. Ducting B. Line-of-sight C. Scatter D. Ground-wave T3C03 (B) How are VHF signals propagated within the range of the visible horizon? A. By sky wave B. By direct wave C. By plane wave D. By geometric wave T3C04 (C) Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere? A. F2 B. Ectosphere C. Troposphere D. Stratosphere T3C05 (A) What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-meter radio waves? A. It lets you contact stations farther away B. It causes them to travel shorter distances C. It garbles the signal D. It reverses the sideband of the signal T3C06 (D) What causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves? A. A very low pressure area B. An aurora to the north C. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving stations D. A temperature inversion T3C07 (B) What causes VHF radio waves to be propagated several hundred miles over oceans? A. A polar air mass B. A widespread temperature inversion C. An overcast of cirriform clouds D. A high-pressure zone T3C08 (D) In what frequency range does tropospheric ducting most often occur? A. SW B. MF C. HF D. VHF T3C09 (D) In what frequency range does sky-wave propagation least often occur? A. LF B. MF C. HF D. VHF T3C10 (A) What weather condition may cause tropospheric ducting? A. A stable high-pressure system B. An unstable low-pressure system C. A series of low-pressure waves D. Periods of heavy rainfall T3C11 (D) What band conditions might indicate long-range skip on the 6- meter and 2-meter bands? A. Noise on the 80-meter band B. The absence of signals on the 10-meter band C. Very long-range skip on the 10-meter band D. Strong signals on the 10-meter band from stations about 500- 600 miles away SUBELEMENT T4 AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [4 Exam Questions - 4 groups] T4A Electrical wiring, including switch location, dangerous voltages and currents. T4A01 (C) Where should the green wire in a three-wire AC line cord be connected in a power supply? A. To the fuse B. To the "hot" side of the power switch C. To the chassis D. To the white wire T4A02 (D) Where should the black (or red) wire in a three-wire AC line cord be connected in a power supply? A. To the white wire B. To the green wire C. To the chassis D. To the fuse T4A03 (B) Where should the white wire in a three-wire AC line cord be connected in a power supply? A. To the side of the power transformer's primary winding that has a fuse B. To the side of the power transformer's primary winding that does not have a fuse C. To the chassis D. To the black wire T4A04 (D) What document is used by almost every US city as the basis for electrical safety requirements for power wiring and antennas? A. The Code of Federal Regulations B. The Proceedings of the IEEE C. The ITU Radio Regulations D. The National Electrical Code T4A05 (C) What document would you use to see if you comply with standard electrical safety rules when building an amateur antenna? A. The Code of Federal Regulations B. The Proceedings of the IEEE C. The National Electrical Code D. The ITU Radio Regulations T4A06 (D) Where should fuses be connected on a mobile transceiver's DC power cable? A. Between the red and black wires B. In series with just the black wire C. In series with just the red wire D. In series with both the red and black wires T4A07 (B) Why is the retaining screw in one terminal of a wall outlet made of brass while the other one is silver colored? A. To prevent corrosion B. To indicate correct wiring polarity C. To better conduct current D. To reduce skin effect T4A08 (A) How much electrical current flowing through the human body is usually fatal? A. As little as 1/10 of an ampere B. Approximately 10 amperes C. More than 20 amperes D. Current flow through the human body is never fatal T4A09 (A) Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount of electrical current? A. The heart B. The brain C. The liver D. The lungs T4A10 (A) How much electrical current flowing through the human body is usually painful? A. As little as 1/500 of an ampere B. Approximately 10 amperes C. More than 20 amperes D. Current flow through the human body is never painful T4A11 (A) What is the minimum voltage which is usually dangerous to humans? A. 30 volts B. 100 volts C. 1000 volts D. 2000 volts T4A12 (C) Where should the main power switch for a high-voltage power supply be located? A. Inside the cabinet, to kill the power if the cabinet is opened B. On the back side of the cabinet, out of sight C. Anywhere that can be seen and reached easily D. A high-voltage power supply should not be switch-operated T4A13 (B) What precaution should you take when leaning over a power amplifier? A. Take your shoes off B. Watch out for loose jewelry contacting high voltage C. Shield your face from the heat produced by the power supply D. Watch out for sharp edges which may snag your clothing T4A14 (C) What is an important safety rule concerning the main electrical box in your home? A. Make sure the door cannot be opened easily B. Make sure something is placed in front of the door so no one will be able to get to it easily C. Make sure others in your home know where it is and how to shut off the electricity D. Warn others in your home never to touch the switches, even in an emergency T4A15 (B) What should you do if you discover someone who is being burned by high voltage? A. Run from the area so you won't be burned too B. Turn off the power, call for emergency help and give CPR if needed C. Immediately drag the person away from the high voltage D. Wait for a few minutes to see if the person can get away from the high voltage on their own, then try to help T4B Meters, including volt, amp, multi, peak-reading, RF watt and placement, and ratings of fuses and switches. T4B01 (B) How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test? A. In series with the circuit B. In parallel with the circuit C. In quadrature with the circuit D. In phase with the circuit T4B02 (C) How can the range of a voltmeter be increased? A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test C. By adding resistance in series with the meter, between the meter and the circuit under test D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter, between the meter and the circuit under test T4B03 (A) What happens inside a voltmeter when you switch it from a lower to a higher voltage range? A. Resistance is added in series with the meter B. Resistance is added in parallel with the meter C. Resistance is reduced in series with the meter D. Resistance is reduced in parallel with the meter T4B04 (A) How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit under test? A. In series with the circuit B. In parallel with the circuit C. In quadrature with the circuit D. In phase with the circuit T4B05 (D) How can the range of an ammeter be increased? A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test C. By adding resistance in series with the meter D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter T4B06 (D) What does a multimeter measure? A. SWR and power B. Resistance, capacitance and inductance C. Resistance and reactance D. Voltage, current and resistance T4B07 (A) Where should an RF wattmeter be connected for the most accurate readings of transmitter output power? A. At the transmitter output connector B. At the antenna feed point C. One-half wavelength from the transmitter output D. One-half wavelength from the antenna feed point T4B08 (B) At what line impedance do most RF wattmeters usually operate? A. 25 ohms B. 50 ohms C. 100 ohms D. 300 ohms T4B09 (A) What does a directional wattmeter measure? A. Forward and reflected power B. The directional pattern of an antenna C. The energy used by a transmitter D. Thermal heating in a load resistor T4B10 (B) If a directional RF wattmeter reads 90 watts forward power and 10 watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output power? A. 10 watts B. 80 watts C. 90 watts D. 100 watts T4B11 (C) If a directional RF wattmeter reads 96 watts forward power and 4 watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output power? A. 80 watts B. 88 watts C. 92 watts D. 100 watts T4C Marker generator, crystal calibrator, signal generators and impedance-match indicator. T4C01 (A) What is a marker generator? A. A high-stability oscillator that generates reference signals at exact frequency intervals B. A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a range of frequencies C. A low-stability oscillator used to inject a signal into a circuit under test D. A high-stability oscillator which can produce a wide range of frequencies and amplitudes T4C02 (A) How is a marker generator used? A. To calibrate the tuning dial on a receiver B. To calibrate the volume control on a receiver C. To test the amplitude linearity of a transmitter D. To test the frequency deviation of a transmitter T4C03 (D) What device is used to inject a frequency calibration signal into a receiver? A. A calibrated voltmeter B. A calibrated oscilloscope C. A calibrated wavemeter D. A crystal calibrator T4C04 (B) What frequency standard may be used to calibrate the tuning dial of a receiver? A. A calibrated voltmeter B. Signals from WWV and WWVH C. A deviation meter D. A sweep generator T4C05 (C) How might you check the accuracy of your receiver's tuning dial? A. Tune to the frequency of a shortwave broadcasting station B. Tune to a popular amateur net frequency C. Tune to one of the frequencies of station WWV or WWVH D. Tune to another amateur station and ask what frequency the operator is using T4C06 (C) What device produces a stable, low-level signal that can be set to a desired frequency? A. A wavemeter B. A reflectometer C. A signal generator D. An oscilloscope T4C07 (B) What is an RF signal generator used for? A. Measuring RF signal amplitudes B. Aligning tuned circuits C. Adjusting transmitter impedance-matching networks D. Measuring transmission-line impedances T4C08 (D) What device can measure an impedance mismatch in your antenna system? A. A field-strength meter B. An ammeter C. A wavemeter D. A reflectometer T4C09 (A) Where should a reflectometer be connected for best accuracy when reading the impedance match between an antenna and its feed line? A. At the antenna feed point B. At the transmitter output connector C. At the midpoint of the feed line D. Anywhere along the feed line T4C10 (A) If you use a 3-30 MHz RF power meter for VHF, how accurate will its readings be? A. They will not be accurate B. They will be accurate enough to get by C. If it properly calibrates to full scale in the set position, they may be accurate D. They will be accurate providing the readings are multiplied by 4.5 T4C11 (C) If you use a 3-30 MHz SWR meter for VHF, how accurate will its readings be? A. They will not be accurate B. They will be accurate enough to get by C. If it properly calibrates to full scale in the set position, they may be accurate D. They will be accurate providing the readings are multiplied by 4.5 T4D Dummy antennas, S-meter, exposure of the human body to RF. T4D01 (D) What device should be connected to a transmitter's output when you are making transmitter adjustments? A. A multimeter B. A reflectometer C. A receiver D. A dummy antenna T4D02 (B) What is a dummy antenna? A. An nondirectional transmitting antenna B. A nonradiating load for a transmitter C. An antenna used as a reference for gain measurements D. A flexible antenna usually used on hand-held transceivers T4D03 (C) What is the main component of a dummy antenna? A. A wire-wound resistor B. An iron-core coil C. A noninductive resistor D. An air-core coil T4D04 (B) What device is used in place of an antenna during transmitter tests so that no signal is radiated? A. An antenna matcher B. A dummy antenna C. A low-pass filter D. A decoupling resistor T4D05 (A) Why would you use a dummy antenna? A. For off-the-air transmitter testing B. To reduce output power C. To give comparative signal reports D. To allow antenna tuning without causing interference T4D06 (A) What minimum rating should a dummy antenna have for use with a 100-watt single-sideband phone transmitter? A. 100 watts continuous B. 141 watts continuous C. 175 watts continuous D. 200 watts continuous T4D07 (D) Why might a dummy antenna get warm when in use? A. Because it stores electric current B. Because it stores radio waves C. Because it absorbs static electricity D. Because it changes RF energy into heat T4D08 (A) What is used to measure relative signal strength in a receiver? A. An S meter B. An RST meter C. A signal deviation meter D. An SSB meter T4D09 (B) How can exposure to a large amount of RF energy affect body tissue? A. It causes radiation poisoning B. It heats the tissue C. It paralyzes the tissue D. It produces genetic changes in the tissue T4D10 (A) Which body organ is the most likely to be damaged from the heating effects of RF radiation? A. Eyes B. Hands C. Heart D. Liver T4D11 (D) What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum limits of RF energy near the human body? A. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) B. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) C. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) D. The American National Standards Institute (ANSI) T4D12 (B) What is the purpose of the ANSI RF protection guide? A. It lists all RF frequency allocations for interference protection B. It gives RF exposure limits for the human body C. It sets transmitter power limits for interference protection D. It sets antenna height limits for aircraft protection T4D13 (D) According to the ANSI RF protection guide, what frequencies cause us the greatest risk from RF energy? A. 3 to 30 MHz B. 300 to 3000 MHz C. Above 1500 MHz D. 30 to 300 MHz T4D14 (D) Why is the limit of exposure to RF the lowest in the frequency range of 30 MHz to 300 MHz, according to the ANSI RF protection guide? A. There are more transmitters operating in this range B. There are fewer transmitters operating in this range C. Most transmissions in this range are for a longer time D. The human body absorbs RF energy the most in this range T4D15 (B) According to the ANSI RF protection guide, what is the maximum safe power output to the antenna of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio? A. 125 milliwatts B. 7 watts C. 10 watts D. 25 watts T4D16 (C) After you have opened a VHF power amplifier to make internal tuning adjustments, what should you do before you turn the amplifier on? A. Remove all amplifier shielding to ensure maximum cooling B. Make sure that the power interlock switch is bypassed so you can test the amplifier C. Be certain all amplifier shielding is fastened in place D. Be certain no antenna is attached so that you will not cause any interference SUBELEMENT T5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [2 exam questions - 2 groups] T5A Definition of resistance, inductance, and capacitance and unit of measurement, calculation of values in series and parallel. T5A01 (D) What does resistance do in an electric circuit? A. It stores energy in a magnetic field B. It stores energy in an electric field C. It provides electrons by a chemical reaction D. It opposes the flow of electrons T5A02 (D) What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called? A. Admittance B. Capacitance C. Resistance D. Inductance T5A03 (C) What is the basic unit of inductance? A. The coulomb B. The farad C. The henry D. The ohm T5A04 (C) What is a henry? A. The basic unit of admittance B. The basic unit of capacitance C. The basic unit of inductance D. The basic unit of resistance T5A05 (D) What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called? A. Inductance B. Resistance C. Tolerance D. Capacitance T5A06 (A) What is the basic unit of capacitance? A. The farad B. The ohm C. The volt D. The henry T5A07 (B) What is a farad? A. The basic unit of resistance B. The basic unit of capacitance C. The basic unit of inductance D. The basic unit of admittance T5A08 (B) If two equal-value inductors are connected in series, what is their total inductance? A. Half the value of one inductor B. Twice the value of one inductor C. The same as the value of either inductor D. The value of one inductor times the value of the other T5A09 (A) If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is their total inductance? A. Half the value of one inductor B. Twice the value of one inductor C. The same as the value of either inductor D. The value of one inductor times the value of the other T5A10 (C) If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is their total capacitance? A. Twice the value of one capacitor B. The same as the value of either capacitor C. Half the value of either capacitor D. The value of one capacitor times the value of the other T5A11 (A) If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their total capacitance? A. Twice the value of one capacitor B. Half the value of one capacitor C. The same as the value of either capacitor D. The value of one capacitor times the value of the other T5B Ohm's Law. T5B01 (D) Ohm's Law describes the mathematical relationship between what three electrical quantities? A. Resistance, voltage and power B. Current, resistance and power C. Current, voltage and power D. Resistance, current and voltage T5B02 (C) How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and resistance are known? A. I = R x E [current equals resistance multiplied by voltage] B. I = R / E [current equals resistance divided by voltage] C. I = E / R [current equals voltage divided by resistance] D. I = P / E [current equals power divided by voltage] T5B03 (B) How is the resistance in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and current are known? A. R = I / E [resistance equals current divided by voltage] B. R = E / I [resistance equals voltage divided by current] C. R = I x E [resistance equals current multiplied by voltage] D. R = P / E [resistance equals power divided by voltage] T5B04 (C) How is the voltage in a DC circuit calculated when the current and resistance are known? A. E = I / R [voltage equals current divided by resistance] B. E = R / I [voltage equals resistance divided by current] C. E = I x R [voltage equals current multiplied by resistance] D. E = P / I [voltage equals power divided by current] T5B05 (D) If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.25 ampere to a circuit, what is the circuit's resistance? A. 0.25 ohm B. 3 ohm C. 12 ohms D. 48 ohms T5B06 (D) If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.15 ampere to a circuit, what is the circuit's resistance? A. 0.15 ohm B. 1.8 ohm C. 12 ohms D. 80 ohms T5B07 (B) If a 4800-ohm resistor is connected to 120 volts, how much current will flow through it? A. 4 A B. 25 mA C. 25 A D. 40 mA T5B08 (D) If a 48000-ohm resistor is connected to 120 volts, how much current will flow through it? A. 400 A B. 40 A C. 25 mA D. 2.5 mA T5B09 (A) If a 4800-ohm resistor is connected to 12 volts, how much current will flow through it? A. 2.5 mA B. 25 mA C. 40 A D. 400 A T5B10 (A) If a 48000-ohm resistor is connected to 12 volts, how much current will flow through it? A. 250 uA B. 250 mA C. 4000 mA D. 4000 A T5B11 (A) If you know the voltage and current supplied to a circuit, what formula would you use to calculate the circuit's resistance? A. Ohm's Law B. Tesla's Law C. Ampere's Law D. Kirchhoff's Law SUBELEMENT T6 - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS - [2 Exam Questions - 2 groups] T6A Resistors, construction types, variable and fixed, color code, power ratings, schematic symbols. T6A01 (B) Which of the following are common resistor types? A. Plastic and porcelain B. Film and wire-wound C. Electrolytic and metal-film D. Iron core and brass core T6A02 (C) What does a variable resistor or potentiometer do? A. Its resistance changes when AC is applied to it B. It transforms a variable voltage into a constant voltage C. Its resistance changes when its slide or contact is moved D. Its resistance changes when it is heated T6A03 (B) How do you find a resistor's tolerance rating? A. By using a voltmeter B. By reading the resistor's color code C. By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors D. By reading its Baudot code T6A04 (A) What do the first three color bands on a resistor indicate? A. The value of the resistor in ohms B. The resistance tolerance in percent C. The power rating in watts D. The resistance material T6A05 (B) What does the fourth color band on a resistor indicate? A. The value of the resistor in ohms B. The resistance tolerance in percent C. The power rating in watts D. The resistance material T6A06 (A) Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use? A. Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat B. Their reactance makes them heat up C. Hotter circuit components nearby heat them up D. They absorb magnetic energy which makes them hot T6A07 (C) Why would a large size resistor be used instead of a smaller one of the same resistance? A. For better response time B. For a higher current gain C. For greater power dissipation D. For less impedance in the circuit T6A08 (C) What are the possible values of a 100-ohm resistor with a 10% tolerance? A. 90 to 100 ohms B. 10 to 100 ohms C. 90 to 110 ohms D. 80 to 120 ohms T6A09 (B) How do you find a resistor's value? A. By using a voltmeter B. By using the resistor's color code C. By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors D. By using the Baudot code T6A10 (A) Which tolerance rating would a high-quality resistor have? A. 0.1% B. 5% C. 10% D. 20% T6A11 (D) Which tolerance rating would a low-quality resistor have? A. 0.1% B. 5% C. 10% D. 20% T6B Schematic symbols - inductors and capacitors, construction of variable and fixed, factors affecting inductance and capacitance, capacitor construction. T6B01 (D) What is an inductor core? A. The place where a coil is tapped for resonance B. A tight coil of wire used in a transformer C. Insulating material placed between the wires of a transformer D. The place inside an inductor where its magnetic field is concentrated T6B02 (C) What does an inductor do? A. It stores a charge electrostatically and opposes a change in voltage B. It stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a change in current C. It stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change in current D. It stores a charge electromechanically and opposes a change in voltage T6B03 (D) What determines the inductance of a coil? A. The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil and whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically B. The core diameter, the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil and the type of metal used for the wire C. The core material, the number of turns used to wind the core and the frequency of the current through the coil D. The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil T6B04 (A) As an iron core is inserted in a coil, what happens to the coil's inductance? A. It increases B. It decreases C. It stays the same D. It disappears T6B05 (A) What can happen if you tune a ferrite-core coil with a metal tool? A. The metal tool can change the coil's inductance and cause you to tune the coil incorrectly B. The metal tool can become magnetized so much that you might not be able to remove it from the coil C. The metal tool can pick up enough magnetic energy to become very hot D. The metal tool can pick up enough magnetic energy to become a shock hazard T6B06 (B) In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents an adjustable inductor? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4 T6B07 (D) In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents an iron-core inductor? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4 T6B08 (D) In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents an inductor wound over a toroidal core? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4 T6B09 (A) In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents an electrolytic capacitor? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4 T6B10 (C) In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents a variable capacitor? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4 T6B11 (C) What describes a capacitor? A. Two or more layers of silicon material with an insulating material between them B. The wire used in the winding and the core material C. Two or more conductive plates with an insulating material between them D. Two or more insulating plates with a conductive material between them T6B12 (B) What does a capacitor do? A. It stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a change in current B. It stores a charge electrostatically and opposes a change in voltage C. It stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change in current D. It stores a charge electromechanically and opposes a change in voltage T6B13 (A) What determines the capacitance of a capacitor? A. The material between the plates, the area of one side of one plate, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates B. The material between the plates, the number of plates and the size of the wires connected to the plates C. The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether the dielectric material is N type or P type D. The material between the plates, the area of one plate, the number of plates and the material used for the protective coating T6B14 (B) As the plate area of a capacitor is increased, what happens to its capacitance? A. It decreases B. It increases C. It stays the same D. It disappears SUBELEMENT T7 - PRACTICAL CIRCUITS - [1 exam question - 1 group] T7A Practical circuits. T7A01 (C) Why do modern HF transmitters have a built-in low-pass filter in their RF output circuits? A. To reduce RF energy below a cutoff point B. To reduce low-frequency interference to other amateurs C. To reduce harmonic radiation D. To reduce fundamental radiation T7A02 (A) What circuit blocks RF energy above and below a certain limit? A. A band-pass filter B. A high-pass filter C. An input filter D. A low-pass filter T7A03 (A) What type of filter is used in the IF section of receivers to block energy outside a certain frequency range? A. A band-pass filter B. A high-pass filter C. An input filter D. A low-pass filter T7A04 (C) What circuit is found in all types of receivers? A. An audio filter B. A beat-frequency oscillator C. A detector D. An RF amplifier T7A05 (D) What circuit has a variable-frequency oscillator connected to a driver and a power amplifier? A. A packet-radio transmitter B. A crystal-controlled transmitter C. A single-sideband transmitter D. A VFO-controlled transmitter T7A06 (B) What circuit combines signals from an IF amplifier stage and a beat-frequency oscillator (BFO), to produce an audio signal? A. An AGC circuit B. A detector circuit C. A power supply circuit D. A VFO circuit T7A07 (D) What circuit uses a limiter and a frequency discriminator to produce an audio signal? A. A double-conversion receiver B. A variable-frequency oscillator C. A superheterodyne receiver D. A FM receiver T7A08 (D) What circuit is pictured in Figure T7-1 if block 1 is a variable- frequency oscillator? A. A packet-radio transmitter B. A crystal-controlled transmitter C. A single-sideband transmitter D. A VFO-controlled transmitter T7A09 (B) What is the unlabeled block in Figure T7-2? A. An AGC circuit B. A detector C. A power supply D. A VFO circuit T7A10 (D) What circuit is pictured in Figure T7-3? A. A double-conversion receiver B. A variable-frequency oscillator C. A superheterodyne receiver D. An FM receiver T7A11 (C) What is the unlabeled block in Figure T7-4? A. A band-pass filter B. A crystal oscillator C. A reactance modulator D. A rectifier modulator SUBELEMENT T8 - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [2 exam questions - 2 groups] T8A Definition of modulation and emission types. T8A01 (B) What is the name for unmodulated carrier wave emissions? A. Phone B. Test C. CW D. RTTY T8A02 (C) What is the name for Morse code emissions produced by switching a transmitter's output on and off? A. Phone B. Test C. CW D. RTTY T8A03 (B) What is RTTY? A. Amplitude-keyed telegraphy B. Frequency-shift-keyed telegraphy C. Frequency-modulated telephony D. Phase-modulated telephony T8A04 (B) What is the name for packet-radio emissions? A. CW B. Data C. Phone D. RTTY T8A05 (D) How is tone-modulated Morse code produced? A. By feeding a microphone's audio signal into an FM transmitter B. By feeding an on/off keyed audio tone into a CW transmitter C. By on/off keying of a carrier D. By feeding an on/off keyed audio tone into a transmitter T8A06 (D) What is the name of the voice emission most used on VHF/UHF repeaters? A. Single-sideband phone B. Pulse-modulated phone C. Slow-scan phone D. Frequency-modulated phone T8A07 (A) What is the name of the voice emission most used on amateur HF bands? A. Single-sideband phone B. Pulse-modulated phone C. Slow-scan phone D. Frequency-modulated phone T8A08 (A) What is meant by the upper-sideband (USB)? A. The part of a single-sideband signal which is above the carrier frequency B. The part of a single-sideband signal which is below the carrier frequency C. Any frequency above 10 MHz D. The carrier frequency of a single-sideband signal T8A09 (D) What emissions are produced by a transmitter using a reactance modulator? A. CW B. Test C. Single-sideband, suppressed-carrier phone D. Phase-modulated phone T8A10 (C) What other emission does phase modulation most resemble? A. Amplitude modulation B. Pulse modulation C. Frequency modulation D. Single-sideband modulation T8A11 (B) What is the name for emissions produced by an on/off keyed audio tone? A. RTTY B. MCW C. CW D. Phone T8B RF carrier, modulation, bandwidth and deviation. T8B01 (A) What is another name for a constant-amplitude radio-frequency signal? A. An RF carrier B. An AF carrier C. A sideband carrier D. A subcarrier T8B02 (A) What is modulation? A. Varying a radio wave in some way to send information B. Receiving audio information from a signal C. Increasing the power of a transmitter D. Suppressing the carrier in a single-sideband transmitter T8B03 (A) What kind of emission would your FM transmitter produce if its microphone failed to work? A. An unmodulated carrier B. A phase-modulated carrier C. An amplitude-modulated carrier D. A frequency-modulated carrier T8B04 (B) How would you modulate a 2-meter FM transceiver to produce packet-radio emissions? A. Connect a terminal-node controller to interrupt the transceiver's carrier wave B. Connect a terminal-node controller to the transceiver's microphone input C. Connect a keyboard to the transceiver's microphone input D. Connect a DTMF key pad to the transceiver's microphone input T8B05 (C) Why is FM voice best for local VHF/UHF radio communications? A. The carrier is not detectable B. It is more resistant to distortion caused by reflected signals C. It has high-fidelity audio which can be understood even when the signal is somewhat weak D. Its RF carrier stays on frequency better than the AM modes T8B06 (D) Why do many radio receivers have several IF filters of different bandwidths that can be selected by the operator? A. Because some frequency bands are wider than others B. Because different bandwidths help increase the receiver sensitivity C. Because different bandwidths improve S-meter readings D. Because some emission types need a wider bandwidth than others to be received properly T8B07 (C) Which list of emission types is in order from the narrowest bandwidth to the widest bandwidth? A. RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice B. CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice C. CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice D. CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice T8B08 (D) What is the usual bandwidth of a single-sideband amateur signal? A. 1 kHz B. 2 kHz C. Between 3 and 6 kHz D. Between 2 and 3 kHz T8B09 (C) What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-modulated amateur signal? A. Less than 5 kHz B. Between 5 and 10 kHz C. Between 10 and 20 kHz D. Greater than 20 kHz T8B10 (B) What is the result of overdeviation in an FM transmitter? A. Increased transmitter power B. Out-of-channel emissions C. Increased transmitter range D. Poor carrier suppression T8B11 (C) What causes splatter interference? A. Keying a transmitter too fast B. Signals from a transmitter's output circuit are being sent back to its input circuit C. Overmodulation of a transmitter D. The transmitting antenna is the wrong length SUBELEMENT T9 - ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [3 exam questions - 3 groups] T9A Parasitic beam and non-directional antennas. T9A01 (C) What is a directional antenna? A. An antenna which sends and receives radio energy equally well in all directions B. An antenna that cannot send and receive radio energy by skywave or skip propagation C. An antenna which sends and receives radio energy mainly in one direction D. An antenna which sends and receives radio energy equally well in two opposite directions T9A02 (A) How is a Yagi antenna constructed? A. Two or more straight, parallel elements are fixed in line with each other B. Two or more square or circular loops are fixed in line with each other C. Two or more square or circular loops are stacked inside each other D. A straight element is fixed in the center of three or more elements which angle toward the ground T9A03 (C) What type of beam antenna uses two or more straight elements arranged in line with each other? A. A delta loop antenna B. A quad antenna C. A Yagi antenna D. A Zepp antenna T9A04 (B) How many directly driven elements do most beam antennas have? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three T9A05 (A) What is a parasitic beam antenna? A. An antenna where some elements obtain their radio energy by induction or radiation from a driven element B. An antenna where wave traps are used to magnetically couple the elements C. An antenna where all elements are driven by direct connection to the feed line D. An antenna where the driven element obtains its radio energy by induction or radiation from director elements T9A06 (D) What are the parasitic elements of a Yagi antenna? A. The driven element and any reflectors B. The director and the driven element C. Only the reflectors (if any) D. Any directors or any reflectors T9A07 (B) What is a cubical quad antenna? A. Four straight, parallel elements in line with each other, each approximately 1/2-electrical wavelength long B. Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one-electrical wavelength long C. A vertical conductor 1/4-electrical wavelength high, fed at the bottom D. A center-fed wire 1/2-electrical wavelength long T9A08 (A) What is a delta loop antenna? A. A type of cubical quad antenna, except with triangular elements rather than square B. A large copper ring or wire loop, used in direction finding C. An antenna system made of three vertical antennas, arranged in a triangular shape D. An antenna made from several triangular coils of wire on an insulating form T9A09 (D) What type of non-directional antenna is easy to make at home and works well outdoors? A. A Yagi B. A delta loop C. A cubical quad D. A ground plane T9A10 (D) What type of antenna is made when a magnetic-base whip antenna is placed on the roof of a car? A. A Yagi B. A delta loop C. A cubical quad D. A ground plane T9A11 (A) If a magnetic-base whip antenna is placed on the roof of a car, in what direction does it send out radio energy? A. It goes out equally well in all horizontal directions B. Most of it goes in one direction C. Most of it goes equally in two opposite directions D. Most of it is aimed high into the air T9B Polarization, impedance matching and SWR, feed lines, balanced vs unbalanced (including baluns). T9B01 (B) What does horizontal wave polarization mean? A. The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface B. The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface C. The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface D. The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface T9B02 (C) What does vertical wave polarization mean? A. The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface B. The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface C. The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface D. The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface T9B03 (C) What electromagnetic-wave polarization does a Yagi antenna have when its elements are parallel to the earth's surface? A. Circular B. Helical C. Horizontal D. Vertical T9B04 (D) What electromagnetic-wave polarization does a half-wavelength antenna have when it is perpendicular to the earth's surface? A. Circular B. Horizontal C. Parabolical D. Vertical T9B05 (D) What electromagnetic-wave polarization does most man-made electrical noise have in the HF and VHF spectrum? A. Horizontal B. Left-hand circular C. Right-hand circular D. Vertical T9B06 (D) What does standing-wave ratio mean? A. The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a feed line B. The ratio of maximum to minimum resistances on a feed line C. The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a feed line D. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a feed line T9B07 (A) What does forward power mean? A. The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna B. The power radiated from the top of an antenna system C. The power produced during the positive half of an RF cycle D. The power used to drive a linear amplifier T9B08 (B) What does reflected power mean? A. The power radiated down to the ground from an antenna B. The power returned to a transmitter from an antenna C. The power produced during the negative half of an RF cycle D. The power returned to an antenna by buildings and trees T9B09 (C) What happens to radio energy when it is sent through a poor quality coaxial cable? A. It causes spurious emissions B. It is returned to the transmitter's chassis ground C. It is converted to heat in the cable D. It causes interference to other stations near the transmitting frequency T9B10 (C) What is an unbalanced line? A. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground C. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground D. Feed line with both conductors connected to each other T9B11 (A) What device can be installed to feed a balanced antenna with an unbalanced feed line? A. A balun B. A loading coil C. A triaxial transformer D. A wavetrap T9C Line losses by line type, length and frequency, RF safety. T9C01 (B) What common connector usually joins RG-213 coaxial cable to an HF transceiver? A. An F-type cable connector B. A PL-259 connector C. A banana plug connector D. A binding post connector T9C02 (A) What common connector usually joins a hand-held transceiver to its antenna? A. A BNC connector B. A PL-259 connector C. An F-type cable connector D. A binding post connector T9C03 (B) Which of these common connectors has the lowest loss at UHF? A. An F-type cable connector B. A type-N connector C. A BNC connector D. A PL-259 connector T9C04 (A) If you install a 6-meter Yagi antenna on a tower 150 feet from your transmitter, which of the following feed lines is best? A. RG-213 B. RG-58 C. RG-59 D. RG-174 T9C05 (C) If you have a transmitter and an antenna which are 50 feet apart, but are connected by 200 feet of RG-58 coaxial cable, what should be done to reduce feed line loss? A. Cut off the excess cable so the feed line is an even number of wavelengths long B. Cut off the excess cable so the feed line is an odd number of wavelengths long C. Cut off the excess cable D. Roll the excess cable into a coil which is as small as possible T9C06 (B) As the length of a feed line is changed, what happens to signal loss? A. Signal loss is the same for any length of feed line B. Signal loss increases as length increases C. Signal loss decreases as length increases D. Signal loss is the least when the length is the same as the signal's wavelength T9C07 (B) As the frequency of a signal is changed, what happens to signal loss in a feed line? A. Signal loss is the same for any frequency B. Signal loss increases with increasing frequency C. Signal loss increases with decreasing frequency D. Signal loss is the least when the signal's wavelength is the same as the feed line's length T9C08 (D) If your antenna feed line gets hot when you are transmitting, what might this mean? A. You should transmit using less power B. The conductors in the feed line are not insulated very well C. The feed line is too long D. The SWR may be too high, or the feed line loss may be high T9C09 (D) Why should you make sure that no one can touch an open-wire feed line while you are transmitting with it? A. Because contact might cause a short circuit and damage the transmitter B. Because contact might break the feed line C. Because contact might cause spurious emissions D. Because high-voltage radio energy might burn the person T9C10 (C) For RF safety, what is the best thing to do with your transmitting antennas? A. Use vertical polarization B. Use horizontal polarization C. Mount the antennas where no one can come near them D. Mount the antenna close to the ground T9C11 (A) Why should you regularly clean, tighten and re-solder all antenna connectors? A. To help keep their resistance at a minimum B. To keep them looking nice C. To keep them from getting stuck in place D. To increase their capacitance